In 2 Peter chapter 3 the destruction of the both earth, and the destruction of ungodly men is the same. What happens to one will happen to the other. Both the earth and the ungodly persons, not souls, are to be destroyed by fire at the same time, on the Day of Judgment. If the same word in the same sentence was used with two different meanings there would be no way anyone could know the writer was saying God will destroy (apolia) the earth but will torment (apolia) men. God could not have said any clearer that He will destroy both? Do you believe God or man?
"Passes away...abides forever" 1 John 2:17. This is a contrast showing that the world with those who are of the world shall pass away, but
· "He that does the will of God abides forever."
· Those who are of the world shall pass away with the world, and shall not "abides forever."
The world "shall pass away...be dissolved...be burned up...dissolved...shall melt with fervent heat" (2 Peter 3:10-11). The unsaved are "not of the Father, but is of the world, and the world passes away" (1 John 2:17). There is no way to say any stronger or clearer that the lost persons shall pass away (come to an end) just as the world will come to an end. "But the heavens that now are, and the earth, by the same word have been stored up for fire, being reserved against the day of judgment and destruction of ungodly men" (2 Peter 3:7). Both are destroyed "in the day of," not one (the earth) destroyed "in the day of," and one (the lost) being destroyed for all eternity but never destroyed; not that they will be just as undestroyed after a million years of being destroyed as they were at it's beginning, and God will be forever destroying them for all eternity, but He will never be able to get the job done. Not the destruction of one and the everlasting torment of the other one, but it is the same destruction of both at the same time. The destruction of the earth and the ungodly is on the Judgment Day; the theology of today says, "Not so, the soul that are in a sinner will have no destruction, but it live forever in torment for it can never be destroyed."
John 3:16 apolia-perish "should not perish, (apolia) but have eternal life." This verse certainly teaches that God sent His Son that a person may have eternal life, not just a reward to those who are born with eternal life. It does not teach that a person is born with a soul that cannot die, and this part of a person had eternal life before Christ came, and without the death of Christ. John 3:16 teaches those who believe on Christ will have life, and those who do not will have death, not life without end in Hell. It is life or perish in John 3:16, not Heaven or Hell; not a word is said about Hell in John 3:16. “Perish” does not mean “death.”
Acts 8:20 apolia-perish "may your silver perish (apolia) with you" (Acts 8:20). The same thing that happens to the silver happens to the person ("perish with you"), both the silver and the person will perish together. Is the silver being tormented with the person, or did both perish?
The King James and New King James translators try to cover this up by using "perdition." Apolia is translated "perdition" Eight times in the King James Version, and comes from the Latin Bible used by the Catholic Church, not from the Greek. Does this show the unwillingness of the translator's to translate it honestly? Were they trying to hide its true meaning; if not, why did they translate this Greek word into a Latin word in an English translation? Was it because they did not want it understood by their English readers that could not read Latin? Perdition in Latin is not a synonym for endless torture; perdition means "utter destruction," but not many English readers would know this. It hides the true meaning from all who do not understand Latin but nonetheless lets the translators say they did not mistranslate it. Apolia is translated "perdition" in both the King James Version and the American Standard Version in John 17:12; Philippians 1:28; 2 Thessalonians 2:3; 1 Timothy 6:9; Hebrews 10:39; Revelation 17:8; 17:11. In 2 Peter 3:7 the King James Version says, "perdition," and the American Standard Version says, “destruction." The New Revised Standard Version, New International Version, and most other translations have been more truthful to the English readers and taken the Latin word "perdition" out and replaced it with "destruction."
(4) Olethros is used 4 times and translated destruction all 4 times.
2 Thessalonians 1:9 "Who shall be punished with everlasting destruction (olethros) from the presence of the Lord." We are told clearly and exactly:
Two views of 2 Thessalonians l:9.
One view): The everlasting destruction comes from the presence of the Lord. The "everlasting destruction" comes "from (apo) the presence of the Lord and from the glory of His power" New King James Version. This destruction is the penalty for sin (death) to those who are not in Christ and are not saved by His death.
Henry Thayer said, "Destruction proceeding from the (incensed, wrathful) countenance of the Lord, 2 Th 1.9" A Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament, page 59.
In Jeremiah 4:26, the origin of the destruction is from God. In Isaiah 2:10: 2:19; and 2:21 the Septuagint, a Greek version of the Old Testament made in third century BC, has the same Greek words ("from the presence of the Lord") used by Peter in Acts 3:19 where it is used as proceeding from the Lord.
· “And suffer many things FROM (apo) the elders” (Matthew 16:21 New American Standard). Christ suffered many things FROM (apo) the elders, not many things that were “forever away FROM the elders.”
· “So all the generations FROM (apo) Abraham unto David are fourteen generations (Matthew 1:17)
· “He is risen FROM (apo) the dead” (Matthew 14:2).
A second view): The destruction is to be sent away from the presence of the Lord. Unconditional immoralists add "away" from the presence of the Lord. They want this destruction to be only souls that had been in the lost being sent away from the presence of God, but without the souls being destroyed, as if there were such a place, to be banished to some place where God is not there. To be away from the presence of God is to be nowhere at all. Not to be; to have no existence at all anywhere. For souls to be alive anywhere is to be where God is (Psalm 139:7-9) with God sustaining the life they have, for there can be no life that is not sustained by God. There cannot be a place where there is life away from the presence of God. Today's theology denies the omnipresence of God by saying there is a place where God is not present, then says the souls that were in mankind can forever live there without God being there to sustain the life of these souls. The destruction comes from God. It is "destruction from the presence of the Lord," not "being sent away from the presence of the Lord," it is not persons or souls that live forever with out God with out destruction.
Both Acts 3:19 and 2 Thessalonians 1:9 have the identical words, “from (apo) the presence of the Lord.” A sign, many things, destruction, and seasons of refreshing are all things that came from God, not things that were sent away from God to exist forever away from His presence. Apo is used many times in the New Testament and never means away.
Two passages that are used to prove torment of a soul in Hell after the death of the of the person it was in, 2 Thessalonians 1:8-9 and Revelation 14:10-11. Where is Hell? 2 Thessalonians 1:9 is used to prove Hell is away from the presence of God, and that death, the wages of sin for souls that are not dead is separation from God. Yet, when Revelation 14:10-11 is made literal to prove Hell, when this torment is made be literal torment, it make this torment to be in Heaven in the presence of the Lord, not in Hell, not separation from the presence of the Lord.
1. "In the presence of the Lord" Revelation 14:10-11
2. Or away (which is added) "from the presence of the Lord" 2 Thessalonians 1:9
Those who believe in Hell use both to prove Hell; both "from" and "in" the presence of the Lord are where the torment of Hell will be, they clearly contradict themselves. Is Hell in Christ's presence or away from His presence? They have it both ways with souls both (1) separated from God, but being tormented by Him even though they are separated from Him, (2) and at the same time in the presence of God being tormented by God.
Robert Peterson commenting on 2 Thessalonians 1:9 in "Hell on Trial" said:
Peterson changed "everlasting destruction" to everlasting “exists.” The English “destruction” or the Greek word “olethros,” from which it is translated, does not mean to exist. Nothing can exist and be destroyed at the same time; from what dictionary does Peterson find destruction to mean exists.
· Anything that exists has not been destroyed.
Destruction has been changed to exist in some faraway place where God does not exist. Who made this place? Did God make it and then abandoned it to exist on it own just as the souls that were sent there must exist on their own, and they must sustain their own life without the help of God who is not there? Where is the revelation from which anyone could know destruction means to exist away from God and without God? Those that teach eternal torment know that if destruction is destruction, then those who are destroyed do not exist any longer and cannot be tormented; therefore, they must change destruction to exist. They must say to God, "Not so God, even despite the fact that You said they will be destroyed, souls cannot be destroyed." This is an example of how far Peterson and all who believe this heathen teaching are willing to go to save their theology. Being permanently apart from God makes life impossible; it makes to exist in any way impossible. How can anyone who says he or she “speaks where the Bible speaks, and is silent where the Bible is silent” change “everlasting destruction” into “everlasting torment” still say they do not change God’s word, when even a child can see they have changed it? God is made to be like a man that sets out to destroy a house by tearing it down, but works on it all his lifetime, and not one part of the house is destroyed. They have God spending eternity destroying a soul after a soul that once was in a person but left the person it was in, but God will never destroy any part of that soul. "Destroy" and "torment" are different things and cannot be made to be the same thing. "For yourselves know perfectly that the day of the Lord so comes as a thief in the night. When they (those of the world) are saying, Peace and safety, then sudden destruction (olethros) comes upon them, as travail upon a woman with child; and they shall in no wise escape. But you, brethren, are not in darkness, that day should overtake you as a thief" (1 Thessalonians 5:2-4). The sudden destruction, which "they shall in no wise escape" is on "the day of the Lord," "that day" not eternal existing in torment after "the day of the Lord." Also 1 Timothy 6:9; 2 Corinthians 5:1-5.
Roger E. Dickson: "2 Thessalonians 1:9 should thus be translated that 'these shall be punished with destruction that has unending result.' The word 'destruction' means something is terminated, that the action of destruction would not continuously go on forever and ever...The result of the destruction would continue forever. In other words, those destroyed would not come back into existence. Taken literally, they are destroyed" "Life, Death and Beyond" Biblical Research Library, Volume 11, 1998, page 160, Star Bible Publications, Inc.
(5) Phthiro is used 8 times and is translated (1) Destroy 2 times, (2) Corrupt 4 times, (3) Corruption 2 times. "If any man destroys (phthiro) the temple of God, God will destroy (phthiro) him" 1 Corinthians 3:17 New American Standard Version. Against all rules of interpretation, the same word is used in the same sentence with two completely different meanings; this same word is changed to be, "If any man destroys (phthiro) the temple of God, God will torment (phthiro) him." Why such inconsistency? Do those who have their own theory change the Bible to keep their theology?
(6) Phthora is used 9 times and is translated (1) Corruption 7 times, (2) Perish 1 time, (3) Destroyed 1 time.
· "All which things are to PERISH (phthiro) with the using" (Colossians 2:22 American Standard Version). Things are not going to be tormented, but will come to an end. Yet, when the same word is used in reference to a person, some say, "Not so, a soul that is in a person cannot perish; and not even God can destroy it, for a soul is eternal and therefore cannot be destroyed."
(7) Kataphileo is used 2 times and is translated Utterly perish 1 time in 2 Peter 2:12, Corrupt 1 time in 2 Timothy 3:8.
"Truth Commentaries" on 2 Peter 2:12 changes what Peter said about the same thing shall happen to these men that happened to the beast, and tried to side step by saying they only act as if they are of the same nature. Nothing is said about a person and beast having the same nature, he added that, but Peter said that they both will have the same end, both will "be destroyed" American Standard Version. The writer could not get around this so he changed what Peter said from both beast and corrupt men having the same end, to both having the same nature; and then he said they do not even have the same nature, but only act as if they do? The same end is not the same thing as "same nature." From where did he get same nature? Is he not a county mile from what Peter did say? Does he think only the "nature" of a person or beast is to be destroyed (phthora), but only one will be alive after their nature is destroyed (Psalm 49:20)?
(8) Exolothreuo is used only one time. "And it shall be, that every soul (psukee-life-living being) that shall not hearken to that prophet, shall be utterly destroyed from among the people" (Acts 3:23). It is the "psukee" (living being, person) that shall be "utterly destroyed," not a deathless soul that shall be “utterly tormented from among the people.” If this were speaking of immaterial no substance “it” that is in a person unto the death of the person, the very thing many say is immortal from birth and cannot be destroyed would be "utterly destroyed." In Acts 3:22-23 Peter is speaking of anyone who will not hear Christ shall be "utterly destroyed," not some immaterial deathless something that is in them forever preserved alive. Not only shall they that do not hearken to Christ be destroyed, they are to be “utterly destroyed.”
· “To destroy utterly; extirpate—complete extermination” Thayer’s Greek-English Lexicon.
· “To slay wholly” Vine’s Expository Dictionary of New Testament Words
· “Exerminate: utterly destroy” The Analytical Greek Lexicon.
G. A. Adams: "Exolothreuo is found in this one passage. This is the strongest word in Greek for the action of God towards man in his evil. There is not a shade of modification from the idea or absolute eradication. The word means clearly 'the wiping out of existence.' Even the translators used an adjective, 'utterly' to convey the idea of eradication. It clearly refers to all those who reject Christ as being eradicated." "The Judgment," page 25.
When the strongest words in the Greek language that signify destroy or destruction are made to mean an everlasting existence in torment; there cannot be a grosser misinterpretation of language.
(9) Katargeo is used 27 times. Translated (1) Abolished, (2) Vanish away, (3) Bring to naught (nothing), (4) Do away with, (5) Destroy (6) Destroyed, (7) Be done away, (8) Ceased, (9) etc.